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1richardbsmith
Does anyone know of a contextual or grammatical reason that the verse should be understood that God is the subject of reckoned.
"God reckoned it (Abram's trust) to Abram as righteous."
The Hebrew has literally, "And he trusted in YHWH and he reckoned it to him as righteousness/justice."
I cannot find any reason that "it" must be Abram's trust and not YHWH's promise.
The Septuagint is slightly different. "And Abram believed in God and it was reckoned to him as righteousness." I think a little more clear that righteousness is reckoned to Abram. And Paul uses the Septuagint, not the Hebrew.
I have not found anywhere any hint of an interpretation of the Genesis verse that even suggests the alternative interpretation to be possible, that Abram considered it (YHWH's promise) as righteousness/justice.
Still, I have not been able to find any reason to interpret YWHW reckons Abram to be righteous because of his trust rather than Abram reckons YHWH to be righteous because of his promise.
6 וְהֶאֱמִ֖ן בַּֽיהוָ֑ה וַיַּחְשְׁבֶ֥הָ לּ֖וֹ צְדָקָֽה׃
"God reckoned it (Abram's trust) to Abram as righteous."
The Hebrew has literally, "And he trusted in YHWH and he reckoned it to him as righteousness/justice."
I cannot find any reason that "it" must be Abram's trust and not YHWH's promise.
The Septuagint is slightly different. "And Abram believed in God and it was reckoned to him as righteousness." I think a little more clear that righteousness is reckoned to Abram. And Paul uses the Septuagint, not the Hebrew.
I have not found anywhere any hint of an interpretation of the Genesis verse that even suggests the alternative interpretation to be possible, that Abram considered it (YHWH's promise) as righteousness/justice.
Still, I have not been able to find any reason to interpret YWHW reckons Abram to be righteous because of his trust rather than Abram reckons YHWH to be righteous because of his promise.
6 וְהֶאֱמִ֖ן בַּֽיהוָ֑ה וַיַּחְשְׁבֶ֥הָ לּ֖וֹ צְדָקָֽה׃
3richardbsmith
Thanks MMcM.
Of course I would like your thoughts on the question. At least I feel a bit better knowing that there is a question, rather than just my bad Hebrew.
I had not realized that the verse had much significance in Judaism. It seemed to be a less significant verse, especially compared to its significance in Christianity.
In the context of the narrative, I think more it is Abram coming to know God. Abram's heart was already known by YWHW. Abram had obeyed. He had left Ur.
The promise to Abram was enough for Abram to count this God as righteous or perhaps just? And now God is able to introduce himself to Abram as YWHW. (Of course something that in P only happens with Moses.)
In the story, YWHW still has to prove that the promise is trustworthy. Abram did not rely on his trust. He required the ritual ceremony.
Of course I would like your thoughts on the question. At least I feel a bit better knowing that there is a question, rather than just my bad Hebrew.
I had not realized that the verse had much significance in Judaism. It seemed to be a less significant verse, especially compared to its significance in Christianity.
In the context of the narrative, I think more it is Abram coming to know God. Abram's heart was already known by YWHW. Abram had obeyed. He had left Ur.
The promise to Abram was enough for Abram to count this God as righteous or perhaps just? And now God is able to introduce himself to Abram as YWHW. (Of course something that in P only happens with Moses.)
In the story, YWHW still has to prove that the promise is trustworthy. Abram did not rely on his trust. He required the ritual ceremony.
